Model paper for Railways & other competitive exams

This is set of 150 Question for RRB exams.

1. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) lead rail
(b) point rail
(c) wing rail
(d) splice rail
Ans:- C

2. The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called:
(a) terminal
(b) Station
(c) rail-head
(d) Base
Ans:- C

3. The good quality wood for sleeper is:
(a) Deodar
(b) Sheesham
(c) Teak
(d) Sal
Ans:- C

4. Generally the life of wooden sleepers is taken as:
(a) 2 to 3 years
(b) 12 to 15 years
(c) 35 to 50 years
(d) 5 to 8 years
Ans:- B

5. The gradual or tapered widening of the flange way which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as:
(a) Flare
(b) Toe
(c) Heel
(d) Loop
Ans:- A

6. The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be:
(a) zero cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 100 cm
(d) 60 cm
Ans:- D

7. The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under the …….. edge of the sleeper.
(a) upper
(b) middle
(c) inner
(d) outer
Ans:- C

8. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is:
(a) 1 in 5
(b) 1 in 10
(c) 1 in 20
(d) 1 in 25
Ans:- C

9. The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as:
(a) anchors
(b) ballast
(c) subgrade
(d) chairs
Ans:- B

10. Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting:
(a) double headed rails
(b) flat footed rails
(c) bull headed rails
(d) all above are correct
Ans:- B

11. The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are known as:
(a) fastenings
(b) sleepers
(c) ballast
(d) fish plate
Ans:- B

12. The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is:
(a) 78.6 mm
(b) 136.5 mm
(c) 66.7 mm
(d) 70 mm
Ans:- B

13. The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as:
(a) Track pits
(b) Inspection pits
(c) Drop pits
(d) Siding pits
Ans:- C

14. The wheels are coned to prevent from rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to prevent lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is:
(a) 1 in 5
(b) 1 in 20
(c) 1 in 10
(d) 1 in 15
Ans:- B

15. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track.
(a) inner faces
(b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail
(c) centre lines
(d) outer faces
Ans:- A

16. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is:
(a) adhesion of wheels
(b) resistance due to oscillations
(c) flange resistance
(d) air or wind resistance
Ans:- A

17. The rails are welded by:
(a) Thermit welding
(b) Gas welding
(c) Arc welding
(d) MIG welding
Ans:- A

18. Steel sleepers are ….. shaped in section.
(a) oval
(b) rectangular
(c) trough
(d) semi-spherical
Ans:- C

19. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is:
(a) 18
(b) 30
(c) 12
(d) 24
Ans:- A

20. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are known as:
(a) Stock rails
(b) Guard rails
(c) Check rails
(d) Wing rails
Ans:- B

21. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as:
(a) cropping
(b) creeping
(c) bulging
(d) buckling
Ans:- D

22. Creep is the ….. movement of rails.
(a) longitudinal
(b) diagonal
(c) horizontal
(d) vertical
Ans:- A

23. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is:
(a) sand
(b) Gravel
(c) Quartzite
(d) All the above
Ans:- C

24. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of:
(a) Type of rails
(b) Spacing of the sleepers
(c) Speed of trains
(d) All of the above
Ans:- D

25. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means:
(a) checking of subgrade
(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade
(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work
(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees
Ans:- D

26. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as:
(a) Rolling motion
(b) Nosing motion
(c) Lurching motion
(d) Vibration
Ans:- B

27. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in the form of motion is called:
(a) rolling stock
(b) railway
(c) wagon
(d) locomotive
Ans:- D

28. Integrated coach factory is located in:
(a) Chennai
(b) Bangalore
(c) Jamshedpur
(d) Mumbai
Ans:- A

29. C.T.C. stands for:
(a) Critical Track Control
(b) Critical Traffic Channeliser
(c) Centralised Traffic Control
(d) None of these
Ans:- C

30. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as:
(a) Fish plate
(b) Chair
(c) Saddle plate
(d) Bearing plate
Ans:- D

31. Generally the rail sections used in India is:
(a) flat footed
(b) double headed
(c) bull headed
(d) all above
Ans:- A

32. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called:
(a) three ladder track
(b) turn table
(c) three throw switch
(d) triangle
Ans:- B

33. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is:
(a) 1.83 m
(b) 1.52 m
(c) 2.74 m
(d) 1.676 m
Ans:- C

34. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian Railways is called:
(a) Permanent Way Inspector
(b) Gangmate
(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector
(d) None of these are correct
Ans:- C

35. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard should be:
(a) 250 to 300 mm
(b) 200 to 250 mm
(c) 150 to 200 mm
(d) 150 mm
Ans:- B

36. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is known as:
(a) steel way
(b) rails
(c) railway
(d) permanent way
Ans:- D

37. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of:
(a) 10-15 kg/HP
(b) 60-80 kg/HP
(c) 20-30 kg/HP
(d) 100-150 kg/HP
Ans:- B

38. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is:
(a) Loose packing at joints
(b) Defect in gauge and alignment
(c) Defect in cross level joints
(d) Any of the above
Ans:- D

39. The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is called:
(a) lift
(b) site distance
(c) rail-head
(d) lead
Ans:- D

40. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called:
(a) Track gradient
(b) Track slope
(c) Super elevation
(d) Horizontal gradient
Ans:- C

41. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as:
(a) Tractive force
(b) Load capacity
(c) Gauge
(d) Track modulus
Ans:- D
42. The head of a gang in maintenance organisation of railway is called:
(a) P.W.I
(b) Keyman
(c) Ganger
(d) A.P.W.I
Ans:- C

43. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as:
(a) wing rail
(b) stock rail
(c) lead rail
(d) point rail
Ans:- B

44. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is:
(a) 19.2 m
(b) 25.6 m
(c) 11.8 m
(d) 12.8 m
Ans:- D

45. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is:
(a) 16 mm
(b) 10 mm
(c) 25 mm
(d) 20 mm
Ans:- D

46. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of:
(a) 50-65%
(b) 25-35%
(c) 15-20%
(d) 10-15%
Ans:- B

47. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to:
(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels
(b) Heavy axle load
(c) Constant brake application
(d) Any or all of the above
Ans:- D

48. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc., is known as:
(a) Oscillating motion
(b) Lurching motion
(c) Shutting motion
(d) Vibration
Ans:- A

49. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called:
(a) Wet joint
(b) Water joint
(c) Pumping joint
(d) Blowing joint
Ans:- C

50. Accidents can be avoided by adopting:
(a) interlocking
(b) C.T.C. system
(c) pilot guard system
(d) A.T.C. system
Ans:- A

51. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started?
(a) 1982
(b) 1989
(c) 1984
(d) 1992
Ans: – C

52. Shatabdi Express train was started in
(a) 1984
(b) 1988
(c) 1990
(d) 1985
Ans: – B

53. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established?
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Patiala
(c) Perambur
(d) Varanasi
Ans: – B

54. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways?
(a) Central Railway
(b) Northern Railway
(c) Eastern Railway
(d) Western Railway
Ans: – C

55. The railway station situated in the extreme south is
(a) Chennai
(b) Cochin
(c) Kanyakumari
(d) Trivandrum
Ans: – C

56. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called
(a) Dock platform
(b) Passenger platform
(c) Island platform
(d) Goods platform
Ans: – C

57. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done?
(a) 1952
(b) 1950
(c) 1951
(d) 1954
Ans: – B

58. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established?
(a) 1954
(b) 1957
(c) 1959
(d) 1967
Ans: – B

59. Railway Staff College is situated at
(a) Bangalore
(b) Secundrabad
(c) Chennai
(d) Vadodara
Ans: – D

60. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Bangalore
(c) Pune
(d) New Delhi
Ans:- A

61. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true?
(a) South-Central Railway – Secunderabad
(b) Central railway – Bhopal
(c) South Railway – Chennai
(d) North Railway – New Delhi
Ans:- B

62. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started?
(a) from Calcutta to Delhi
(b) From Mumbai to Thane
(c) From Mumbai to Surat
(d) From Mumbai to Madras
Ans:- B

63. When was the first train in Indian started?
(a) 1851
(b) 1852
(c) 1853
(d) 1854
Ans:- C
64. In which Governor-General’s reign railway lines in India was established?
(a) Lord William Bentick
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Kenning
(d) Lord Dalhousie
Ans:- D

65. A station where the rail lines end, is called
(a) junction station
(b) way-side-station
(c) block station
(d) terminal station
Ans:- D

66. How much distance was traveled by first train of India?
(a) 33 km
(b) 36 km
(c) 34 km
(d) 46 km
Ans:- C

67. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Ans:- D

68. What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)?
(a) 4300 Km
(b) 3700 Km
(c) 4290 km
(d) 5298 km
Ans:- B

69. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Guwahati
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) New Delhi
Ans:- C

70. When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established?
(a) 15th Jan, 1958
(b) 15th Jan, 1955
(c) 2nd Jan, 1956
(d) 14th April, 1952
Ans:- A

71. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is
(a) Calcutta
(b) Maligaon (Guwahati)
(c) Chennai
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans:- B

72. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Calcutta
(d) Chennai
Ans:- C

73. General Manger is responsible for
(a) Railway Board
(b) Railway Ministry
(c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry
(d) None of these
Ans:- A

74. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Chennai
(c) Secundrabad
(d) Mumbai (Central)
Ans:- C

75. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at
(a) New Delhi
(b) Guwahati
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) Mumbai (V.T)
Ans:- A

76. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at
(a) Calcutta
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mumbai
Ans:- B

77. In which institution the training of electric work is being given?
(a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering
(b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering
(c) Railway Staff College
(d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering
Ans:- B

78. Who invented the railway engine?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Isaac Newton
(c) James Watt
(d) George Stephenson
Ans:- D

79. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Institution situated?
(a) Nasik
(b) Baroda
(c) Jamalpur
(d) Pune
Ans:- C

80. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) West Bengal
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans:- C

81. The zone with the minimum length is
(a) North-Eastern Railway
(b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway
(c) South-East Railway
(d) South-Central Railway
Ans:- B

82. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated?
(a) Pune
(b) Chennai
(c) Nasik
(d) Sikandrabad
Ans:- A

83. How many training institutions of Railways are in India?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
Ans:- C

84. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Forth
Ans:- B

85. Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas?
(a) Broad gauge
(b) Meter gauge
(c) Narrow gauge
(d) Special gauge
Ans:- C

86. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station?
(a) Jammutavi
(b) Amritsar
(c) Pathancoat
(d) Guwahat
Ans:- A

87. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Ans:- B

88. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at
(a) Perambur
(b) Varanasi
(c) Kapurthala
(d) Bangalore
Ans:- B

89. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in
(a) 1974
(b) 1961
(c) 1971
(d) 1973
Ans:- C

90. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following places?
(a) Kapurthala
(b) Chittranjan
(c) Perambur
(d) Bangalore
Ans:- C

91. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided into how many regions?
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 10
Ans:- B

92. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Gujarat
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans:- A

93. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in
(a) 1988
(b) 1972
(c) 1982
(d) 1965
Ans:- C

94. When was the Central Railway established?
(a) 5th Nov 1951
(b) 14th Nov 1951
(c) 14th April 1951
(d) 16th August, 1951
Ans:- A

95. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones?
(a) Northern region
(b) Western region
(c) North-Western region
(d) Central Region
Ans:- B

96. The largest national enterprise of India is
(a) Indian Railway
(b) Indian Shipyard
(c) Airways
(d) None of these
Ans:- A

97. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittranjan on
(a) November 1950
(b) October 1950
(c) September 1949
(d) October 1954
Ans:- A

98. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated?
(a) Chittranjan
(b) Kapurthala
(c) Bangalore
(d) Perambur
Ans:- C

99. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway?
(a) 1965
(b) 1963
(c) 1967
(d) 1965
Ans:- D

100. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated?
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Mumbai (Church Gate)
(c) Gwalior
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans:- A

101. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is:
(a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans : A

102. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine?
(a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box
Ans : B

103. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on:
(a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents
Ans : B

104. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is:
(a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m
Ans : B

105. Generally the shape of fish plate is:
(a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular
Ans : B

106. The track capacity can be increased by:
(a) Faster movement of trains on the track
(b) By using more powerful engines
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
Ans : C

107. Detonating signals are used:
(a) for noisy engines
(b) during foggy and cloudy weather
(c) for deaf drivers
(d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only
Ans : B

108. Wider gauge permits:
(a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load
(c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves
Ans : C

109. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called:
(a) terminal station (b) flag station
(c) way side station (d) junction station
Ans : D

110. Points and crossings are provided for change of ….on permanent ways.
(a) gauge (b) direction and gradient
(c) direction (d) gradient
Ans : C

111. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as:
(a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart
(c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart
Ans: C

112. The most common system of signaling in India is the …… system.
(a) automatic block (b) section clear system
(c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system
Ans : C

113. The feeder gauge …. is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc.
(a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m
Ans : A

114. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called:
(a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve
(c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve
Ans : B

115. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called:
(a) branch track (b) points and crossing
(c) main or through track (d) all above
Ans : C

116. An expansion gap of …. is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature.
(a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm
(c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm
Ans : C

117. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track:
(a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt
Ans : B

118. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called:
(a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient
Ans : B

119. In locomotive ‘hunting’ is:
(a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track
(b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track
(c) Motion after brakes have been applied
(d) Combination of A and B above
Ans : D

120. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called:
(a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails
(c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails
Ans : A

121. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be:
(a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m
Ans : B

122. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than:
(a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m
Ans : A

123. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be:
(a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm
Ans : C

124. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is:
(a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM
(c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM
Ans : B

125. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called
(a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient
Ans : D

126. The latest system of signaling introduced is:
(a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system
(c) section clear system (d) automatic block system
Ans : A

127. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is:
(a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400
Ans : D

128. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called:
(a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance
(c) friction (d) Tractive resistance
Ans : D

129. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally:
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
Ans : A

130. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called:
(a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Railway (d) Tube railway
Ans : D

131. The creep in rails is measured in:
(a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm
Ans : B

132. The art of providing an outward slope of …. to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels.
(a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20
Ans : D

133. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are:
(a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers
(c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable
Ans : C

134. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as:
(a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard
(c) marshalling yard (d) station yard
Ans : C

135. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life?
(a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine
(c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine
And : B

136. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as:
(a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare
Ans : A

137. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than …., should not be used on any track under any circumstances.
(a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20%
Ans : C

138. A dynamometer car is used for:
(a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities
(c) Inspection of administrative officers
(d) Recording the condition of track
Ans : D

139. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as:
(a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct
Ans : C

140. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as:
(a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch
(c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch
Ans : B

141. In railways, super elevation is provided to:
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) counteract the centrifugal push
(c) counteract the centripetal pull
(d) have all the effects mentioned above
Ans : B

142. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails? (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails
Ans : B

143. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is:
(a) Tapered with flange on outside
(b) Parallel with flange on inside
(c) Tapered with flange on inside
(d) Parallel with flange on outside
Ans : C

144. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be:
(a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable
Ans : C

145. Sand is used as ballast incase of:
(a) steel sleepers
(b) wooden sleepers
(c) reinforced concrete sleepers
(d) cast iron sleepers
Ans : D

146. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called:
(a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals
(c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals
Ans : C

147. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called:
(a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Mono railway (d) Railway
Ans : B

148. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using:
(a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors
Ans : D

149. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is:
(a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg
Ans : A

150. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called:
(a) running line (b) loop line
(c) main line (d) none are correct
Ans : B

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Railway Recruitment Board Bhopal Goods Guard Solved Paper 2008

1. High pressure subtropical calm belts known as Horse Latitudes lies between
(a) 00 and 150
(b) 200 and 250
(c) 300 and 350
(d) None of these
Ans: ( c ) 300 and 350

2. Zimbobwe was formerly known as
(a) Rhodesia
(b) Mali
(c) Namibia
(d) Zanzibar
Ans: ( a ) Rhodesia

3. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(a) Bonn – Danube
(b) Baghdad – Tigris
(c) Rome – Seice
(d) Paris – Tiber
Ans: ( b ) Baghdad – Tigris

4. The canal joining Baltic Sea to North Sea is
(a) Kiel Canal
(b) Suez Canal
(c) Panama Canal
(d) None of these
Ans: ( a ) Kiel Canal

5. Which of the following rivers does not form any delta at its mouth ?
(a) Cauvery
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Godavari
(d) Tapti
Ans: ( d ) Tapti

6. Srinagar is situated on the bank of the river
(a) Ravi
(b) Sutlej
(c) Jhelum
(d) Chenab
Ans: ( c ) Jhelum

7. The Shompens are the tribal people of
(a) Andaman
(b) Nicobar
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) None of these
Ans: ( b ) Nicobar

8. Match the following
A. Manas I. Hangul
B. Dachigam II. Elephant
C. Mudumalai III. Tiger
D. Kaziranga IV. Rhinoceros
A B C D
(a) I II III IV
(b) III I II IV
(c) II IV III I
(d) I III IV II
Ans: ( b ) III I II IV

9. In India, Plan holiday was after
(a) China-India war of 1962
(b) Draught of 1966
(c) Pakistan war of 1971
(d) Pakistan war of 1965
Ans: ( b ) Draught of 1966

10. Which of the following is not a ?Free Trade Zone? ?
(a) Kandla
(b) Mumbai
(c) Visakhapatnam
(d) Trivandrum
Ans: ( d ) Trivandrum

11. The least perfect square number which is divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8 is
(a) 900
(b) 1600
(c) 2500
(d) 3600
Ans: ( d ) 3600

12. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The number of notes are equal. What is the total number of notes ?
(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 75
(d) 45
Ans: ( b ) 90

13. In an organization, 40% of the employees are matriculates, 50% of the remaining are graduates and remaining 180 are post-graduates. How many employees are graduates ?
(a) 360
(b) 240
(c) 180
(d) 300
Ans: ( c ) 180

14. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a Fundamental Right ?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Certiorari
Ans: ( a ) Habeas Corpus

15. A common High Court for two or more States and/or Union Territories may be established by the
(a) President
(b) Parliament by making law
(c) Governor of State
(d) Chief Justice of India
Ans: ( b ) Parliament by making law

16. Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(a) M. C. Setalvad
(b) K. M. Munshi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) B. N. Rau
Ans: ( d ) B. N. Rau

17. During the period of Renaissance, the new style of architecture first developed in
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) England
(d) Germany
Ans: ( a ) Italy

18. The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the revolutionary terrorists of the freedom movement in
(a) The Madras Presidency
(b) Punjab
(c) Bombay-Karnataka
(d) East Bengal
Ans: ( d ) East Bengal

19. Who among the following were popularly known as Red Shirts ?
(a) Congress Socialists
(b) Members of Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Khudai Khidmatgars
(d) People led by Rani Gaidinliu
Ans: ( c ) Khudai Khidmatgars

20. The State in India having dry season for only 3 to 4 months every year is
(a) West Bengal
(b) Kerala
(c) Mizoram
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans: ( c ) Mizoram

21. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
(a) Gulbarga – Karnataka
(b) Midnapur – Gujarat
(c) Wardha – Madhya Pradesh
(d) Cochin – Tamil Nadu
Ans: ( a ) Gulbarga – Karnataka

22. U Thant Award is given for
(a) Contribution to east-west understanding
(b) Community leadership
(c) Social service
(d) Journalism
Ans: ( c ) Social service

23. Bishop Desmond Tutu is the native of
(a) South Africa
(b) Cuba
(c) Tanzania
(d) Zambia
Ans: ( a ) South Africa

24. The first electric railway was opened in
(a) 1853
(b) 1885
(c) 1905
(d) 1925
Ans: ( d ) 1925

25. Machael Ferreira is associated with which of the following games ?
(a) Chess
(b) Snooker
(c) Golf
(d) None of these
Ans: ( b ) Snooker

26. The Lord of Rings : The Return of the King? won Oscar award in how many categories ?
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 12
Ans: ( c ) 11

27. As per Census 2001, which of the following States has the lowest density of population ?
(a) Manipur
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Nagaland
(d) Mizoram
Ans: ( d ) Mizoram

28. Which of the following is the latest Tank ?
(a) Akash
(b) Prithvi
(c) Arjun
(d) Bhim Ans: ( c ) Arjun

29. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched ?
(a) Encephalitis – Brain
(b) Colitis – Colon
(c) Hepatitis – Liver
(d) Jaundice – Throat
Ans: ( d ) Jaundice – Throat

30. Which of the following type of clothes is manufactured by using petroleum products ?
(a) Rayan Silk
(b) Terelyne
(c) Nylon
(d) Cotton
Ans: ( c ) Nylon

31. The function of haemoglobin in the body is
(a) Transport of oxygen
(b) Destruction of bacteria
(c) Prevention of anemia
(d) Utilization of iron
Ans: ( a ) Transport of oxygen

32. Which disease is more common among agricultural workers as compared to urban population ?
(a) Lung?s disease
(b) Cirrhasis of liver
(c) Hookworm infection
(d) Cancer
Ans: ( c ) Hookworm infection

33. Biological fixation of nitrogen occurs most commonly in which of the following crops ?
(a) Pulses
(b) Rice
(c) Wheat
(d) None of these
Ans: ( d ) None of these

34. Which one of the following grows under the tree ?
(a) Cabbage
(b) Bengal gram
(c) Peanuts
(d) Castor
Ans: ( c ) Peanuts

35. Which of the following is an example of a plant that bears seeds but not fruits ?
(a) Cotton Plant
(b) Peepal tree
(c) Eucalyptus tree
(d) Pine tree
Ans: ( c ) Eucalyptus tree

36. Radioactive element which has been found to have large reserves in India is
(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Radium
(d) Plutonium
Ans: ( b ) Thorium

37. The image formed on the retina of a human eye is
(a) Real and upright
(b) Real and inverted
(c) Imaginary and upright
(d) Imaginary and inverted
Ans: ( b ) Real and inverted

38. In increasing sequence, the major elements present in the human body are
(a) Calcium, iron, sodium, phosphorus
(b) Calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sulphur
(c) Calcium, iron, sodium, sulphur
(d) Calcium, potassium, phosphorus, iron
Ans: ( a ) Calcium, iron, sodium, phosphorus

39. A light sensitive compound used in photography is
(a) Silver chloride
(b) Silver sulphide
(c) Silver bromide
(d) Silver oxide
Ans: ( c ) Silver bromide

40. Protective foods in our diet are
(a) Fats and vitamins
(b) Carbohydrates and minerals
(c) Vitamins and minerals
(d) Proteins and carbohydrates
Ans: ( d ) Proteins and carbohydrates

41. The ancient name of Bengal was
(a) Kamrupa
(b) Vasta
(c) Gauda
(d) Vallabhi
Ans: ( c ) Gauda

42. Ahilyabai was the queen of
(a) Gwaliar
(b) Malwa
(c) Jaipur
(d) Bijapur
Ans: ( a ) Gwaliar

43. Morish traveler, Ibn Batutah, came to India during the time of
(a) Ala-ud-din Khalji
(b) Firuz Shah Tughluq
(c) Balban
(d) Muhammed-bin-Tughluq
Ans: ( d ) Muhammed-bin-Tughluq

44. The relics of Indus Valley Civilisation indicates that the main occupation of the people was
(a) Agriculture
(b) Cattle rearing
(c) Commerce
(d) Hunting
Ans: ( c ) Commerce

45. The Mahabalipuram temples were built by the king of Dynasty -
(a) Gupta
(b) Chola
(c) Pallava
(d) Kushana
Ans: ( c ) Pallava

46. The first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra was opened in
(a) 1852
(b) 1853
(c) 1854
(d) 1855
Ans: ( b ) 1853

47. The first discourse of Buddha in Sarnath is called
(a) Mahabhiniskraman
(b) Mahaparinirvana
(c) Mahamastakabhisheka
(d) Dharmachakrapravartan
Ans: ( d ) Dharmachakrapravartan

48. The political and cultural center of the Pandyas was
(a) Vengi
(b) Madurai
(c) Kanchipuram
(d) Mahabalipuram
Ans: ( b ) Madurai

49. What is the correct chronological order of the dynasties in which they invaded India ?
1. Huns 2. Kushanas
3. Aryans 4. Greeks
(a) 4, 3, 2, 1
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans: ( b ) 3, 4, 2, 1

50. Who wrote Mitakshara, a book on Hindu law ?
(a) Nayachandra
(b) Amoghvarsa
(c) Vijnaneswara
(d) Kumban
Ans: ( c ) Vijnaneswara

61. The black hole theory was discovered by
(a) S. Chandrasekhar
(b) Har Gobind Khorana
(c) C.V. Raman
(d) S. Ramanujan
Ans: ( a ) S. Chandrasekhar

62. The main contribution of the Chola dynasty in the field of administration lies in
(a) Systematic provincial administration
(b) A well planned revenue system
(c) A well organized central government
(d) An organized local self government
Ans: ( d ) An organized local self government

63. Who founded the philosophy of Pustimarga ?
(a) Chaitanya
(b) Nanak
(c) Surdas
(d) Ballabhacharya
Ans: ( d ) Ballabhacharya

64. Which of the following battles changed the destiny of a Mughal ruler of India ?
(a) Haldighati
(b) Panipat II
(c) Khanua
(d) Chausa
Ans: ( b ) Panipat II

65. The Vedas contain all the truth? was interpreted by
(a) Swami Vivekanand
(b) Swami Dayanand
(c) Swami Shraddhanand
(d) S. Radhakrishnan
Ans: ( b ) Swami Dayanand

66. Babur entered India for the first time from the west through
(a) Kashmir
(b) Sind
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan
Ans: ( b ) Sind

67. Which was the first among the following ?
(a) Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Subsidiary Alliance
(c) Permanent Settlement
(d) Double Government
Ans: ( d ) Double Government

68. The name of Lord Cornwallis is associated with the
(a) Dual government
(b) Maratha wars
(c) System of subsidiary
(d) Permanent settlement
Ans: ( d ) Permanent settlement

69. Sir Charles Wood?s Despatch of 1854 delat with
(a) Administrative reforms
(b) Social reforms
(c) Economic reforms
(d) Educational reforms
Ans: ( d ) Educational reforms

70. The sea route to India was discovered by the
(a) Dutch
(b) English
(c) Portuguese
(d) French
Ans: ( c ) Portuguese

71. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(a) Ashvaghosa – Vikramaditya
(b) Banabhatta – Harshvardhan
(c) Harisena – Kanishka
(d) Kalidasa – Samudragupta
Ans: ( b ) Banabhatta – Harshvardhan

72. 4th July, 1776 is important in world history because
(a) Battle of Plassey started
(b) Sea route to India was discovered
(c) English King Charles II was executed
(d) American Congress adopted the Declaration of Independence
Ans: ( d ) American Congress adopted the Declaration of Independence

73. Rowlatt Act was passed in the year
(a) 1917
(b) 1919
(c) 192
(d) 1923
Ans: ( b ) 1919

74. Communal electorate in India was introduced through which of the following acts ?
(a) 1909
(b) 1919
(c) 1935
(d) None of these
Ans: ( a ) 1909

75. Abhinav Bharat was organized by
(a) Bhai Parmanand
(b) Khudiram Bose
(c) Vir Savarkar
(d) None of these
Ans: ( c ) Vir Savarkar

76. On 22nd December, which of the following places has the largest day and shortest night ?
(a) Melbourne
(b) Moscow
(c) Madrid
(d) Chennai
Ans: ( a ) Melbourne

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SAIL Exam Patterns, Syllabus,SAMPLE PAPERS

Instructions to Candidates:(Regarding Question Paper)

1. The total test has a total of 200 questions to be attempted in 2 hours and 30 mins. All questions are compulsory and each question carries 1 mark.

2. All questions are of the multiple choice variety with 4 alternatives.

3.  The Question Paper has two sections:-

Section I- relates to the Technical / Administration discipline opted by you and has 100 questions to be attempted in 1 hour and 15 minutes.

Section II- with 100 questions covers -

i)                   General Awareness        

ii)                 ii) Verbal Ability  

iii)              iii) Quantitative Aptitude      

iv)                iv) Test of Reasoning to be attempted in 1 hour and 15 minutes.

4. While both the sections will be administered simultaneously, please DO NOT open the seal of Section II till 75 minutes after commencement of test.

5. Answers have to be provided in the  Answer Sheet by darkening the correct alternative in the appropriate shell with blue/black ball point pen.

6. Every incorrect response will entail a penalty of (-) 0.25 mark (negative marking).

In view of the tight time span, do not waste your time on a question which you find to be difficult. Go on solving questions one by one and come back to the difficult questions at the end.

The test booklet along with the Marked Answer Sheet & Admit Card has to be returned to the invigilator at the end of the examination.

Candidates need to qualify in both the sections and all the 4 sub sections of Section II.

SAIL PATTERN

SAIL Placement Sample Paper 1

SAIL Placement Sample Paper 2

SAIL Placement Sample Paper 3

SAIL Placement Sample Paper 4

SAIL Placement Sample Paper 5

SAIL Technical Paper

SAIL Placement paper G.K

SAIL Placement paper -MENTAL ABILITY

SAIL Placement Sample Paper9(english)

SAIL Placement Sample Paper10(english)

SAIL Placement Sample Paper11(MENTAL ABILITY )

SAIL Placement Sample Paper12(MENTAL ABILITY )

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